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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 01:39

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Is crossdressing being a transvestite?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Dont you think we should put Project 2025 into full force to completely decimate the evil and corrupt Democratic party? The answer is yes.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What shouldn't you Google?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.